Question... suppose you own 90% of your home, and have a mortgage for the rest.... you clearly “have a mortgage” which costs in terms of interest to serve the loan. If you then got £x thousand interest free on a credit card, and used it to stooze the remaining mortgage so that you didn’t pay ANY interest per month (eg assume it’s a small offset mortgage) then my question is this... could I justifiably consider myself “mortgage free” albeit that my assets are not the full house but 90% of it. This is on the basis I pay no interest to the bank, that I would repay any credit promotional 0% ended, and that 90% of a £300k home under these circumstances is the same as 100% of a £270k home.
Ps this is all just “psychological” in the interest of obtaining a point of being “mortgage free”, I know.
Ps this is all just “psychological” in the interest of obtaining a point of being “mortgage free”, I know.